"Oneness Doctrine" (Jesus Only) vs. Trinitarianism When we come to the New Testament, the Gospel of John is by far the most helpful here, because rather than simply starting with the narrative of Christ's birth from a purely human perspective, John goes all the way back to "in the beginning" just like Moses did, and describes who God is, and where Jesus Christ came from. John 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. It seems obvious even to the casual reader that John means to refer to the creation account of Genesis one. He begins with precisely the same words in Gen. 1:1. "In the beginning." John immediately presents us with a paradox, that the Word (Logos) was both "with God" in the beginning, but also "was God." Notice that John refers to the Word with personal pronouns, (He, Him). There is no question then that the Word is a distinct person, and not just a quality or characteristic of God. The use of the masculine personal pronoun (autou - houtos:G3778, "same," John 1:2) in Greek absolutely requires that the Word is a distinct being, and CANNOT refer to a thing, quality, or manifestation of God. It MUST refer to a distinct person. Everything (including mankind) was made by the Word, according to John. The only logical way to understand this apparent paradox is the compound-plural God. John is giving us more revelation about one of the beings of this plural God mentioned in Genesis one. The Word is ONE of the "US" who made man in "OUR" image. Then John says that the "Word became flesh and dwelt among us." This statement is important because the word "became" does not mean that the Word "inhabited" flesh. The Word, who was clearly a being Himself, BECAME flesh. That is, the child born of Mary was actually the "Word." He was not a man with the Word indwelling Him. That would imply that Jesus had a human will and consciousness apart from the Divine Word. Rather, John is careful to preserve the unity of the "Word" in flesh. While He was human in the sense that He was born of a woman, He was in fact God. In essence, John has told us that God the Word became a man, to dwell among men. John 1:18 is crucial to our discussion as well. Here John informs us that in the past, every time someone saw God, it was actually the Only Begotten Son, Jesus Christ. When Abraham spoke with Jehovah face to face, it was Jesus Christ, the one who "declares" the Father. Clearly then, Jehovah refers to the entire Trinity, not only to the Father as is commonly believed. Notice also that the one who was made flesh is the same one who appeared in the Old Testament. This fact proves that Jesus the Son of God is NOT just a "manifestation" of the Father, but that He as a distinct person from the Father also existed in this way prior to the incarnation. John 8:15 Ye judge after the flesh; I judge no man. If Jesus and the Father are one and the same being, then Jesus was a fraud and a charlitan. Did you see the statement that "I am not alone?" If Jesus was a "manifestation" of God, then He just told a real whopper! The Law required two independent witnesses, not the same witness wearing two masks. John refers to the Father's "witness" of the Son again in his first Epistle. 1 John 5:9 If we receive the witness of men, the witness of God is greater: for this is the witness of God which he hath testified of his Son.The bottom line is, if Jesus and the Father are one and the same being, then the testimony that God gave of His Son, and Jesus' use of the Father as an independant witness, are lies. God is a liar. There is no alternative! When Jesus said "I am not alone," He would have lied if He was alone, and the sole "witness!" One of the main Scriptures used by "Oneness" folks is the following statement. John 10:30 I and my Father are one. (KJV) On the surface, this verse seems to indicate an identification between Father and Son. But, later we find Jesus' clear explanation of what He means by this statement. John 17:20 Neither pray I for these alone, but for them also which shall believe on me through their word; Jesus' prayer is that His followers would be "one." Does He mean to imply that all Christians be absorbed into one being? Does He mean for all Christians to be "one" with He and the Father, in the sense of one individual? Not likely! Notice that His prayer is that we be "one" AS Jesus and the Father are "one." That is, in the same way that they are "one." Clearly then, Jesus' being "one" with the Father means to be in complete unity. This is His prayer for us, and His relationship with the Father. There are other passages in John that forbid "Oneness." While sometimes Jesus' words to Philip ("He who hath seen me hath seen the Father") in John 14 are portrayed as teaching "oneness," just a few verses later, Jesus said this: John 14:28 Ye have heard how I said unto you, I go away, and come again unto you. If ye loved me, ye would rejoice, because I said, I go unto the Father: for my Father is greater than I. (KJV) If language means anything, Jesus' going to the Father indicates that they are separate beings. Furthermore, it is utterly impossible for the Father to be greater than Jesus and yet be exactly the same being! There are many more passages that we could consider. But, I think Hebrews one is the best place to wrap this up. H eb 1:1 God, who at sundry times and in divers manners spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets, Oneness folks like to refer to Jesus Christ as the "image" of God from this passage. But, they ignore the rest of the passage! Jesus is not just an "image." Sure, He is an "image" in the sense of John 1:18, the one who declares God to man. He is the "image" of God in the same way Jesus meant, "He who has seen me has seen the Father." That is, He who perceives me has perceived the Father. In other words, we know God by knowing Jesus. However, the rest of this passage clearly proves that Jesus Christ the Son of God is eternal, not just a temporary manifestation of God! He created the worlds! He, as a distinct person, was with God in the beginning! Yet, He is clearly called "God" in this passage (vss. 8,9). Furthermore, Jesus is called the Creator in verse 2, but in verse 11 God is the Creator! And, Jesus the Son of God is presently seated at the right hand of the Father in heaven! The Oneness doctrine makes havoc of these passages of Scripture. Jesus' and the Father's relationship becomes really a lie! While God pretends to be both Father and Son, with long prayers of the Son to the Father, it is all just a show! The Oneness doctrine makes nonsense out of Jesus' travail in the Garden, where He said, not my will but Thine be done. It makes Jesus out to be a liar when He said, "For I came down from heaven, not to do mine own will, but the will of him that sent me." Clearly, Jesus had a will of His own distinct from the Father's BEFORE leaving Heaven to come to earth. The false teaching of "Oneness" strikes at the very heart of the Gospel. (The above was taken from a forum message by Tim Warner.)
Part 1: The Early Church Fathers Declared "Oneness" (Sabellianism) Heresy
|